Mike 1967
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I continually see people use this Biblical discourse out of context. And in many cases it is so called Christians who are miss-applying it.
I have quite often seen people use this Bible verse to admonish someone for making a judgment call on an action of another person. EXAMPLE: John tells Mary that she should not cheat on her husband. Mary tells John that “let he who is without sin cast the first stone”. In this example, Mary is using a popular Bible verse to support the idea that, unless you are perfect…you have no right to judge her actions.
The problem is that Mary has completely twisted the context of the verse that she is using. It is apparent that Mary has not taken the time to read the verse for herself.
Let’s look at the verse that is in question (John Chapter 8 verses 3 to 11)
Joh 8:3 The scribes and the Pharisees brought a woman who had been caught in adultery, and placing her in the midst
Joh 8:4 they said to him, "Teacher, this woman has been caught in the act of adultery.
Joh 8:5 Now in the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. So what do you say?"
Joh 8:6 This they said to test him, that they might have some charge to bring against him. Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground.
Joh 8:7 And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her."
Joh 8:8 And once more he bent down and wrote on the ground.
Joh 8:9 But when they heard it, they went away one by one, beginning with the older ones, and Jesus was left alone with the woman standing before him.
Joh 8:10 Jesus stood up and said to her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?"
Joh 8:11 She said, "No one, Lord." And Jesus said, "Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more."]]
It is clear from the verses above that the Scribes and Pharisees were looking to execute this woman for the sin that she committed. Stoning was the common form of execution by the Jews during this time in history.
Jesus is clearly stating above that “Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her”. Now what does Jesus mean by “throw a stone” ? Is he talking about the judgment that these people made on her original sin, or is he talking about the physical act of execution by stoning that they were looking to carry out. I think that the context is very clear … anyone who reads this should be able to answer the question for himself or herself.
But, even if you cannot answer it for yourself, Jesus answers it for you in the last 2 verses.
“Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you” ?
What does Jesus mean by condemn? Does he mean to judge, or to execute to death, or both?
“Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more”
Here is your answer in clear language. In the same sentence Jesus is saying that he is not condemning her, but he is also telling her not to sin any more. So, it is clear that by condemn Jesus means to execute to death. Jesus does not mean to judge….because he just judged the sin by telling her to sin no more. In other words, in this same sentence Jesus tells the woman that he does not condemn her, but that she should sin no more. So if the judgment of the sin were condemnation, then Jesus could not have said that he was not condemning her.
So the admonishment by Jesus to the Pharisees and Scribes was not…”don’t judge the actions”, but rather “who are you to stone this woman to death for those actions”.
So, back to our example of John and Mary:
If John told Mary that he was going to put her to death for cheating on her husband, then Mary would be correct in using these Bible verses to support her claim that John (if he were a Christian) did not have proper grounds to execute her for her actions.
But as it stands, Mary is simply another example of someone who has not taken the time to research the very thing that she is attempting to use to support her argument. If she had, then she would have seen that she had actually just supported John’s original argument.
I have quite often seen people use this Bible verse to admonish someone for making a judgment call on an action of another person. EXAMPLE: John tells Mary that she should not cheat on her husband. Mary tells John that “let he who is without sin cast the first stone”. In this example, Mary is using a popular Bible verse to support the idea that, unless you are perfect…you have no right to judge her actions.
The problem is that Mary has completely twisted the context of the verse that she is using. It is apparent that Mary has not taken the time to read the verse for herself.
Let’s look at the verse that is in question (John Chapter 8 verses 3 to 11)
Joh 8:3 The scribes and the Pharisees brought a woman who had been caught in adultery, and placing her in the midst
Joh 8:4 they said to him, "Teacher, this woman has been caught in the act of adultery.
Joh 8:5 Now in the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. So what do you say?"
Joh 8:6 This they said to test him, that they might have some charge to bring against him. Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground.
Joh 8:7 And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her."
Joh 8:8 And once more he bent down and wrote on the ground.
Joh 8:9 But when they heard it, they went away one by one, beginning with the older ones, and Jesus was left alone with the woman standing before him.
Joh 8:10 Jesus stood up and said to her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?"
Joh 8:11 She said, "No one, Lord." And Jesus said, "Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more."]]
It is clear from the verses above that the Scribes and Pharisees were looking to execute this woman for the sin that she committed. Stoning was the common form of execution by the Jews during this time in history.
Jesus is clearly stating above that “Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her”. Now what does Jesus mean by “throw a stone” ? Is he talking about the judgment that these people made on her original sin, or is he talking about the physical act of execution by stoning that they were looking to carry out. I think that the context is very clear … anyone who reads this should be able to answer the question for himself or herself.
But, even if you cannot answer it for yourself, Jesus answers it for you in the last 2 verses.
“Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you” ?
What does Jesus mean by condemn? Does he mean to judge, or to execute to death, or both?
“Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more”
Here is your answer in clear language. In the same sentence Jesus is saying that he is not condemning her, but he is also telling her not to sin any more. So, it is clear that by condemn Jesus means to execute to death. Jesus does not mean to judge….because he just judged the sin by telling her to sin no more. In other words, in this same sentence Jesus tells the woman that he does not condemn her, but that she should sin no more. So if the judgment of the sin were condemnation, then Jesus could not have said that he was not condemning her.
So the admonishment by Jesus to the Pharisees and Scribes was not…”don’t judge the actions”, but rather “who are you to stone this woman to death for those actions”.
So, back to our example of John and Mary:
If John told Mary that he was going to put her to death for cheating on her husband, then Mary would be correct in using these Bible verses to support her claim that John (if he were a Christian) did not have proper grounds to execute her for her actions.
But as it stands, Mary is simply another example of someone who has not taken the time to research the very thing that she is attempting to use to support her argument. If she had, then she would have seen that she had actually just supported John’s original argument.