Divisional Round Sunday - Rams at Buccaneers

tyke1doe

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How if the Ball hits the ground in that situation? Its the same *** thing.
No, it's not. The four-down possession when the penalty occurred.
If I use a comparison, if Donald hits Brady on third down after he releases the ball, the ball is still in play. Donald (and the Rams) will be assessed with a penalty.
Let's say if Donald does the same thing on fourth down while the play is in progress. The Bucs will get a first down because the play is in progress.
But let's say the same scenario occurs but after the Bucs receiver drops the ball on fourth down, and Donald pushes Brady and draws a penalty. Tampa isn't getting the ball back because the penalty occurred AFTER the play and AFTER possession was turned over to the Rams.
 

Tussinman

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I say again ........ if you late hit the QB on 4th down it would still be a first down
Because 99% of the time the ball is STILL IN PLAY.

It would be the equavlent of someone hitting the QB like 3 seconds after he throws the ball
 

zrinkill

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You have no idea what you’re talking about. The play was over. It was 4th down and the pass was incomplete. At that point it’s the Ram’s ball. The hit came after the play was over. You don’t have to agree but you’d be wrong.

Shut up ....... if a QB throws and incomplete pass on 4th down and gets hit late ........ its still a first down even though the ball hit the ground and the play was "over".

I will put you on ignore so we wont take over this thread with you defending this stupid nonsense.
 

Ken

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Because they had no more downs, change of possession. You can't fail on 4th down, get a penalty after, and then say "ohhh enforce that penalty back when we had the ball"
Well the ball on the ground on 4th means you longer have the ball......
When the player gets blasted immediately after the ball is dropped, possibly in part bc of the defender bearing down on him, it should affect the play that just hapoened.

Just a dumb rule.
 

BourbonBalz

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Shut up ....... if a QB throws and incomplete pass on 4th down and gets hit late ........ its still a first down even though the ball hit the ground and the play was "over".

I will put you on ignore so we wont take over this thread with you defending this stupid nonsense.
LOL. You can cry all you want, but you’ll still be wrong.
 

Tussinman

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Shut up ....... if a QB throws and incomplete pass on 4th down and gets hit late ........ its still a first down even though the ball hit the ground and the play was "over".
If the ball is incomplete and THEN he gets hit then no it's a dead ball foul, no first down.

That rarely happens because you'd basically have to intentionally hit the QB late (you'd have to hit him like 3 or 4 seconds after he releases the ball)
 

zrinkill

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No, it's not. The four-down possession when the penalty occurred.
If I use a comparison, if Donald hits Brady on third down after he releases the ball, the ball is still in play. Donald (and the Rams) will be assessed with a penalty.
Let's say if Donald does the same thing on fourth down while the play is in progress. The Bucs will get a first down because the play is in progress.
But let's say the same scenario occurs but after the Bucs receiver drops the ball on fourth down, and Donald pushes Brady and draws a penalty. Tampa isn't getting the ball back because the penalty occurred AFTER the play and AFTER possession was turned over to the Rams.

No
 

Aerolithe_Lion

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Shut up ....... if a QB throws and incomplete pass on 4th down and gets hit late ........ its still a first down even though the ball hit the ground and the play was "over".

I will put you on ignore so we wont take over this thread with you defending this stupid nonsense.

The only way that’d happen is if the QB got hit many seconds too late. Virtually every late QB hit is right after he threw it while the ball was still in play
 
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