Question about baseball

cowboyfan4life_mark

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I don't keep up with baseball much but the question is:

How do they have a trading deadline but yet teams still seem to make trades after that date?:confused:
 

Yeagermeister

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cowboyfan4life_mark said:
I don't keep up with baseball much but the question is:

How do they have a trading deadline but yet teams still seem to make trades after that date?:confused:
I have tried with no success to understand it also
 

peplaw06

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cowboyfan4life_mark said:
I don't keep up with baseball much but the question is:

How do they have a trading deadline but yet teams still seem to make trades after that date?:confused:

The "trade deadline" of July 31 is actually the Non-Waiver trade deadline. Any player traded after that date must clear waivers and not be claimed from teams ahead in waiver order.

For example, Javy Lopez was traded to the Red Sox after the non waiver trade deadline from Baltimore. If somebody had wanted to block that trade, they could have claimed Lopez on waivers and claimed him themselves. it has to be a team with a higher waiver priority (i.e. worse record). But since Lopez makes a decent salary, and the teams higher in priority have a worse record than the Sox and are out of the running for a playoff spot, Lopez clears waivers and the trade goes through.
 

cowboyfan4life_mark

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peplaw06 said:
The "trade deadline" of July 31 is actually the Non-Waiver trade deadline. Any player traded after that date must clear waivers and not be claimed from teams ahead in waiver order.

For example, Javy Lopez was traded to the Red Sox after the non waiver trade deadline from Baltimore. If somebody had wanted to block that trade, they could have claimed Lopez on waivers and claimed him themselves. it has to be a team with a higher waiver priority (i.e. worse record). But since Lopez makes a decent salary, and the teams higher in priority have a worse record than the Sox and are out of the running for a playoff spot, Lopez clears waivers and the trade goes through.
Thanks for the explanation...I think.

So basically the "owning" team is "waiving" the player and if that player falls to the trade partner, the trade is good.

Another question. If the above is true, how does team A get anything in return from team B? Would that player have to clear waivers also?

This is confusing. My head hurts.

I just don't get baseball and how it is ran. Why in the world would you have a deadline with a loophole?
 

YoungBuck

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cowboyfan4life_mark said:
Thanks for the explanation...I think.

So basically the "owning" team is "waiving" the player and if that player falls to the trade partner, the trade is good.

Another question. If the above is true, how does team A get anything in return from team B? Would that player have to clear waivers also?

This is confusing. My head hurts.

I just don't get baseball and how it is ran. Why in the world would you have a deadline with a loophole?


Once the original player is claimed on waivers the two teams work out a trade.

Teams put out lots of players on waivers, and if claimed they're able to pull the back if they'd like. Teams do this to gauge interest in a player for possible trades next year.
 

GTaylor

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cowboyfan4life_mark said:
Thanks for the explanation...I think.

So basically the "owning" team is "waiving" the player and if that player falls to the trade partner, the trade is good.
Yes, as an example Atlanta put Andrew Jones on waiver this month and the Rangers claimed him. Lets assume Atlanta tried to trade Jones to the Rangers in July but couldn't get anything worked out. By Jones being claimed by Texas Atlanta has 3 choices 1) Work a trade to the Rangers, 2) Simply let the Rangers have him (Which the Braves would never do) or 3) Pull Jones back off Waivers. Should #3 happen then the Braves are stuck with him for the rest of the season.

Now this is where it gets fun, let's say the Red Sox and Yanks (A-Rod haters feel free to snicker :) here) need a third baseman in the worst way and the Rangers waive Hank Blalock. The Blue Jays, seeing whats going on, puts a claim on him. The Blue Jays have no need for Blalock, all this claim does is PREVENTS their division rivals from grabbing Blalock. This happens all the time (Forgot which GM it was but he bragged that he would claim on average 25 guys a year just to make sure his rivals don't get them). This can backfire on you. Burn your rivals enough times and should the situation be the opposite they won't hesitate to burn you.

Another question. If the above is true, how does team A get anything in return from team B? Would that player have to clear waivers also?
Like the example above with Braves/Rangers and Jones. Once claimed the Braves have 48 hours to do one of the three above. Now they know the Rangers really want Jones so they'll call Jon Daniels (Texas' GM) and tell him "Allright Jon, you want Jones - you have 48 hours to make an decent offer". The Braves hold all the power and can do what they want, it would up to the Rangers to appease them to the point where they would trade the player, since Jones is a good player they won't simply let him go. Now if Jones sucked Atlanta wouldn't hesitate in letting the Rangers have him.

I just don't get baseball and how it is ran. Why in the world would you have a deadline with a loophole?
Good question, don't know why they do this. In fact I think the trading deadline should be at the end of August as July 31st is too soon.
 

cowboyfan4life_mark

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GTaylor said:
Yes, as an example Atlanta put Andrew Jones on waiver this month and the Rangers claimed him. Lets assume Atlanta tried to trade Jones to the Rangers in July but couldn't get anything worked out. By Jones being claimed by Texas Atlanta has 3 choices 1) Work a trade to the Rangers, 2) Simply let the Rangers have him (Which the Braves would never do) or 3) Pull Jones back off Waivers. Should #3 happen then the Braves are stuck with him for the rest of the season.

Now this is where it gets fun, let's say the Red Sox and Yanks (A-Rod haters feel free to snicker :) here) need a third baseman in the worst way and the Rangers waive Hank Blalock. The Blue Jays, seeing whats going on, puts a claim on him. The Blue Jays have no need for Blalock, all this claim does is PREVENTS their division rivals from grabbing Blalock. This happens all the time (Forgot which GM it was but he bragged that he would claim on average 25 guys a year just to make sure his rivals don't get them). This can backfire on you. Burn your rivals enough times and should the situation be the opposite they won't hesitate to burn you.


Like the example above with Braves/Rangers and Jones. Once claimed the Braves have 48 hours to do one of the three above. Now they know the Rangers really want Jones so they'll call Jon Daniels (Texas' GM) and tell him "Allright Jon, you want Jones - you have 48 hours to make an decent offer". The Braves hold all the power and can do what they want, it would up to the Rangers to appease them to the point where they would trade the player, since Jones is a good player they won't simply let him go. Now if Jones sucked Atlanta wouldn't hesitate in letting the Rangers have him.


Good question, don't know why they do this. In fact I think the trading deadline should be at the end of August as July 31st is too soon.
The two above explanation post is the best that it has ever been explained. Thanks people.

Can't believe that the Braves would even entertain the idea of trading AJones.
 
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