CalPolyTechnique
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Your assertion that a clear and unambiguous penalty called against Pittsburgh on the final drive (penultimate, actually) is proof of the refs' lack of bias, is .....nonsensical - Especially after the refs ignored a more agregious version of that same penalty two plays prior. By your logic, if any call was made against Pittsburgh on that last (2nd to last) series, it would prove that the officials had been unbiased throughout the game.
Sorry, you're really serious aren't you, lol?
So, the refs are biased against the Cowboys and ignore (I'm sure you believe) the first facemask, but then strangely turn around and call one moments later that benefits the Cowboys?
Makes perfect sense.
The only thing nonsensical is your line of reasoning.
Please lay out the case of referee bias as it relates to the Cowboys. I'm talking about actual facts, not your subjective interpretation of calls on the field (for or against). Please explain in detail the mechanism in which it works. Do they get a call from the league office notifying them of how they should act? Or, is it just a bunch of good-ole-boy refs that just happen to all be Steeler fans?