StanleySpadowski;1564629 said:
I don't want to get in a legal argument with you, however "knew about it" would be enough for a conviction based solely on the irrefutable evidence that we know; Vick was the owner of the property. A public records deed transfer search shows us that.
Knowingly allowing illegal activity that violates the commerce clause on his property would hold up under the conspiracy charge in the indictment.
If Vick
bought the house for that purpose, then that could be enough for conviction on conspiracy charges. But that's kind of hard to prove, unless they set up the operation right away. His simply being the owner is not enough to prove conspiracy. There has to be some overt action in furtherance of the conspiracy.
And I think you're misunderstanding how the commerce clause works. The commerce clause is the means by which Congress regulates interstate dealings. They can make certain actions illegal, a la gambling across interstate lines. Those illegal activities are federally prosecuted
because they were passed under the Commerce clause.
A person cannot "violate the commerce clause." A person can commit a crime that is enacted under the commerce clause, but they just commit the crime.
The only way the commerce clause is violated is by a state enacting a law that cuts into Congress's Power under the Commerce Clause.
It's a very convoluted area of the law, and there's no way I can explain the way all of it works together, at least not without boring everyone, and a little help. I've forgotten a lot about the commerce clause, but what I've stated here are the basics.