khiladi;1943016 said:
You mean like people talking about Godell lying?
And I would ask what proof do they have that Goodell was lying? It is merely an opinion that Goodell lied.
But we have a report that the Pats taped the Rams red zone plays. Why would someone lie about that when that's a part of the overall controversy?
I think you like to argue for the sake of arguing and don't really process your thoughts very well, at least not here. But fear not, that happens to me too - sometimes.
So which is it? The Patriots taped the red-zone plays of the Rams, or they didn't per the words of Godell?
I don't think Goodell said they didn't tape the Rams red-zone plays. If I recall, I think he said that he didn't see how the Pats benefited from those calls.
Now, if he said they didn't tape the Rams red-zone plays, then please cite me a source, and I will amend my position.
Of course you did. You just have contradicted yourself many a time. For example, you argued that it doesn't count as an unfair advantage, because you can only prove unfair advantage when you win.
No. What I said is that what practical benefit does is an unfair advantage? You can't measure that a part from winning because winning is the reason why we call it an "unfair advantage." And remember my caveat: I said it's not an "unfair advantage"
UNLESS we're talking about for betting purposes.
Inherent in that caveat is the acknowledgement that the unfair advantage benefited the Pats because keeping the score close would have an impact on point spreads. But when I speak of "unfair advantage" I'm saying it has no practical meaning outside of winning - which is why we're even talking about this issue.
If the Pats had lost all their games and the Super Bowls, we wouldn't be talking about this. We talk about it because many believe that by gaining that "unfair advantage" the Pats
won their Super Bowls.
But what I'm saying is perfectly clear
if you want to receive it. If you don't, then you say I'm contradicting myself, I'm using illogic, etc. and so on.
If you believe that, fine. But, remember, you decided to engage me in conversation.
So once again, how can you prove it affected the game? What this essentially means is that the term unfair advantage has no meaning according to your definition.
Again, I'll use the blown call example.
Does a blown call give a team an "unfair advantage"? Yes. Why? Because it is a call that shifts the momentum of a game or alters it in a particular way.
Does a blown call win a team the game? Taking the game as a whole, No. Why? Because a game is made up of several events and factors not only including the plays called, but the mental attitude of the team, talent, coaching decisions, etc.
Your problem is that you keep arguing that I'm saying it didn't affect the game. I am not saying that. I'm saying that one cannot determine whether it by itself resulted in a victory.
I can't get any more clearer than that. Again, I'm not the one having a hard time understanding what I'm saying. You are - whether deliberately or ineptly.
SO how does the NFL declare it as illegal when they can't even measure it's effectiveness?
The word is "its" as in "its effectiveness" not "it's" as in "it is effectiveness." If you're going to engage in a conversation and call someone "********" at least have the common decency to use the appropriate word because that doesn't speak too well of your own mastery of language - which speaks, to some degree, of one's ability to comprehend and process logic.
Second, I've already answered this above. Regardless whether cheating is effective or not, it contradicts a basic principle that the NFL is trying to enforce, namely "fair play" and "honest competition."
The Pats could have taped games and lost them all. Their methods wouldn't have been effective in terms of producing a win, but they are still illegal because they go against the principles and concepts of "fair play" and "honest competition."
Similarly, their methods could have been effective in terms of accomplishing a particular goal within that game, but the methods are still illegal because they go against the principles and concepts of "fair play" and "honest competition."
What's at issue (at least when I talk about how one measure's fair play practically) isn't whether breaking the rules were effective or ineffective, but whether the league can strip a team of a win when it can't be determined whether the cheating actually resulted in a victory. That's my whole point.
I'm not twisting anything, but just showing how in your blind zeal you will defend the Patriots, even if this means blatantly contradicting yourself.
Your really not that good...
Ah, not the old "you're a blind Patriots fan" defense. I guess you've got to fall back on something.
Let it not be said that I deprive you of the mileage you get from that one.