La’el ejection play clarification

Runwildboys

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The rule says if the infraction happens DURING the down, which it did not.
I'm guessing the wording there is important. The "play" was over, but since the next down hadn't started yet (The play clock hadn't started, which I assume is what starts the next down.), I think the infraction happened during the same down.
 

CWR

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Yeah it was a dead ball foul. I can't ever recall those not being added to the result of the play. It can't be because there were penalties on both sides either. That would be punishing Dallas for Washington's mistake.

Should been 1st and 25. I expect the league to admit they got that one wrong.
 

CWR

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I'm guessing the wording there is important. The "play" was over, but since the next down hadn't started yet (The play clock hadn't started, which I assume is what starts the next down.), I think the infraction happened during the same down.

I believe if the whistle has blown that down is officially over.
 

aikemirv

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The "play" is over. Not sure about the down. I've never heard them make a distinction between the two until now.
The down was over because it was first down. It is possible that they ended up calling it incomplete and forgot to announce that
 

DallasInDC

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I asked about the rule. That's what refs are responsible for quoting.

I think it is safe to say when the ref said the penalty was after the play, the previous play ended and therefore could no longer be during the play as stated in the rule.
 
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CWR

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Marcus you've gotten quiet. If you're gonna be the Dean Blandino of this board I need to know why that wasn't a dead ball foul and handled like ALL other dead ball fouls. Lol
 

DallasInDC

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The down was over because it was first down. It is possible that they ended up calling it incomplete and forgot to announce that

This is the only logical reason, but I will not give them the benefit of the doubt given their poor performance in the past.
 

Runwildboys

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I guess I'm assuming they are one in the same.
I always have too, but the wording in that rule has me thinking they may be different. When you think about it, there are downs that occur with no "play", and some (such as a false start) that occur without even a snap of the ball.
 

john van brocklin

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The red card was legitimate because he threw a punch. However, I felt the other calls were rubbish. 1. Because it was a deadball foul, I think the 1st down should have stood. Even without that though, Dak was hit late out of bounds. Therefore, it should have been a penalty on Washington as well. Thus, the fouls should have balanced out. Should be either a repeated down or a first down for us.
Why no first down,?
The foul was after the play.
 

CWR

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I always have too, but the wording in that rule has me thinking they may be different. When you think about it, there are downs that occur with no "play", and some (such as a false start) that occur without even a snap of the ball.

In that instance the down remains the same though. So it wasn't really a down right? It's repeating the same down with the infraction factored in. Hell I dunno. I just watch and eat cheetos.
 

CWR

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I think it should be a 1st down, but, in what I'm saying, it'd be offsetting meaning that the play would basically be replayed.

I would think offsetting would be out worst case scenario, not the garbage they threw at us. Either way though, it's dead ball so it doesn't make sense to me.
 

Runwildboys

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In that instance the down remains the same though. So it wasn't really a down right? It's repeating the same down with the infraction factored in. Hell I dunno. I just watch and eat cheetos.
In that case, yeah, that's a good point. There's the offsides penalties that result in a first down. Yeah, we definitely need someone who can clarify this.
 
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